Hi Folks...I see conversations about how VT @ 100% is very similar to VTI/VXUS with VTI weighted 60% and VXUS @ 40%. I ran some crude weighted split calculations and at 1, 3, 5, and 10 year returns and in those intervals the returns were always different, meaning you had to use a 3-5 % over weighting on one or the other to get them to equal. The 10 year calc requires over allocation to VXUS to balance, the new calcs much less so that on the one year calc VXUS is at roughly a 35% allocation.
This is somewhat intuitive to me, but can someone with expertise and real software back test this? I have some thoughts/conclusions I'd like to share but until I see the real data I'll hold back.