Not sure if this is the proper place for it, but have a question regarding attribution surrounding a cash margin.
Used my spouses margin against investments to pull cash out to buy a new vehicle. Rates are the best you can find, and much better than what you could get through the dealership, so that's why it was used. So her non reg investment account is carrying a negative cash value.
My question is can I use my income to pay down the margin despite it being in her investment account? I wonder how this will be seen by CRA in regards to attribution implications. I feel like I should be able to since the "loan" was used to buy a vehicle, not used for investments. However, I worry that my funds sourced from my income going into her investment account could raise alarm that I'm funding her investments with my income.
I could easily sell some of her investments to cover it, but it would be more optimal for me to just pay it down with my income.
If any clarification is needed, just say and I'll try and edit it respond to the comment.